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Exam : Juniper Networks jn0-320
Title : Juniper Networks Certified Juniper DX (DXAP) Associate Exam

1. What are two valid Cluster load balancing methods? (Choose two.)
A. urlhash
B. backup chaining
C. least connections
D. fewest outstanding requests
Answer: AD

2. In which two situations should you run the command sync group? (Choose two.)
A. when you enable Unified Failover
B. when you create an ActiveN group
C. when you synchronize the sticky table
D. when you require synchronization of the 3G Cache objects
Answer: AB

3. How does the Juniper DX accelerate web servers?
A. by translating HTTP requests to HTTPS
B. by refusing client connections that are unnecessarily refreshed by end users
C. by multiplexing numerous client-side connections to fewer server-side connections
D. by multiplexing numerous server-side connections to fewer client-side connections
Answer: C

4. For a Juniper DX Cluster, what is a basic target server health check?
A. ping
B. TCP health check
C. Layer 7 health check
D. request HTTP default page
Answer: B

5. Which protocols are used to export and import configurations?
A. FTP or SCP
B. FTP or TFTP
C. TFTP or SCP
D. TFTP or SMTP
Answer: C

6. An enterprise has a web application running both HTTP and HTTPS. How many Clusters must be created?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

7. Which two functions require the use of the CLI? (Choose two.)
A. adding a VLAN
B. adding a cluster
C. running a tcpdump
D. adding a target server
Answer: AC

8. Which statement is true about "sticky" load balancing for Clusters?
A. The "clientip" setting does not apply to clusters, it only pertains to a Forwarder.
B. When set to "clientip" it uses the client’s IP address to bind the client to a particular target server.
C. When set to "clientip" it allows a DX sticky cookie to be sent to and stored by the client based on the IP address.
D. When set to "clientip" it ensures that all subsequent requests are directed to the same client that made the initial request.
Answer: B

9. How do you disable a server from Juniper DX Cluster without terminating active client requests?
A. Delete the server.
B. "Soft pause" the target server.
C. "Hard pause" the target server.
D. Create a new Cluster without the server.
Answer: B

10. Which statement is true when logging in using the WebUI?
A. Port 80 for HTTP is enabled by default.
B. Port 443 for HTTPS is enabled by default.
C. Port 8090 for HTTP is enabled by default.
D. Both HTTP and HTTPS are enabled using their standard port values.
Answer: C

11. You are configuring the DX appliance for the first time using the console. Which two configuration values can be set using the first time configuration screen? (Choose two.)
A. the user role
B. the ether0 IP address
C. the default route for this DX appliance
D. the address of a network TFTP server
Answer: BC

12. What do you need to upgrade the DXOS?
A. an upgrade .gz file placed on your FTP server
B. an upgrade .tar file placed on your SCP server
C. an upgrade .pac file placed on your TFTP or SCP server
D. an upgrade CD provided by your Juniper Networks representative
Answer: C

13. What are three Juniper DX Cluster benefits? (Choose three.)
A. performance
B. authorization
C. compression
D. protocol validation
E. UDP load balancing
Answer: ACD

14. An enterprise has an internal web application that needs stickiness managed by a Cluster. All employees access the application through a proxy. What is the correct sticky load balancing policy?
A. urlhash
B. url persistency
C. cookie persistency
D. default persistency
Answer: C

15. Which two benefits does the Juniper DX provide? (Choose two.)
A. It compresses all images.
B. It protects servers from DDoS attacks.
C. It protects servers from SynFlood attacks.
D. It loads all content from web servers to flash.
Answer: BC

16. From the DX WebUI Dashboard, which steps are used for creating a new admin user?
A. Click Admin > Users. Enter username, password, role, account status, and email.
B. Click Admin > Users. Enter username, password, role, account status, and user class.
C. Click Users > Manage Users. Enter username, password, role, account status, and user class.
D. Click Users > Manage Users. Enter username, password, ActiveDirectory domain, account status, and role.
Answer: B

17. When adding a new user and assigning a role, which user role has "read only" rights to the configuration and operational states?
A. user
B. read_only
C. target_operator
D. security_operator
Answer: A

18. Which three statistics are available when viewing the Cluster statistics page? (Choose three.)
A. AppRule counters
B. new SSL sessions
C. connections to target server
D. total number of 200 responses
E. average download time per page
Answer: BCD

19. Which statement is true when you enable SSL for the WebUI?
A. SSL is enabled for the WebUI by default.
B. You must address the WebUI using HTTPS://.
C. You must change the WebUI port when enabling SSL.
D. The demokey and democert are applied to the WebUI by default.
Answer: B

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Exam : HP HP0-702
Title : Tru64 UNIX V5 Advanced Admin. Support & Performance

1. Which file is referenced by the vold daemon during startup to locate copies of the rootdg database?
A. /etc/rootdg
B. /etc/vol/volboot
C. /etc/inittab
D. /etc/vol/voldref
Answer: B

2. Which output does the ActiveAnswer sizer provide?
A. MIB
B. RIS
C. BOM
D. DMS
Answer: C

3. Which utility displays UFS parameters?
A. dumpsys
B. dumpfs
C. dumpcdfs
D. dumpufs
Answer: B

4. Which service or kernel feature does an AlphaServer hardware device use to make service requests of the Tru64 UNIX kernel?
A. interrupts
B. system calls
C. traps
D. system faults
Answer: A

5. How many bytes are contained in a page of memory in Tru64 UNIX?
A. 512
B. 1024
C. 4096
D. 8192
Answer: D

6. Which feature highlights a distinctive AdvFS advantage?
A. RAID 5 support
B. extent-based file allocation
C. tuneable metadata buffer cache
D. fragment-based file allocation
Answer: B

7. Which command generates system configuration information and analysis?
A. collect -f
B. sys_check
C. pmgr
D. vmstat
Answer: B

8. Which parameter is normally associated with tuning a database server?
A. mbuf compression
B. System V message queue
C. TCP hash tables
D. size of namei cache
Answer: B

9. Which standard command, or commands, help determine if a system is CPU bound?
A. iostat and pstat
B. vmstat
C. vmstat and ps
D. showproc
Answer: C

10. Which is a top-down LSM command?
A. volmake
B. volassist
C. voldg
D. voldisksetup
Answer: B

11. Which types of files are used for I/O operations? Select TWO.
A. text
B. directory
C. character special
D. block special
E. I/O special
Answer: CD

12. Which procedure starts system accounting?
A. nulladm the /var/adm/acct file, then issue the action command
B. nulladm the /var/adm/pacct file, then issue the startup command
C. nulladm the /var/adm/runacct file, then issue the sa command
D. nulladm the /var/adm/utmp file, then issue the runacct command
Answer: B

13. What does write-back caching do to improve performance on a RAID 5 set?
A. stages writes in the controller’s memory
B. stages reads in the controller’s memory
C. allows writes to be passed directly to disk
D. disables the HSZ cache module
Answer: A

14. What is the role of swapping in Tru64 UNIX memory management?
A. to reclaim pages for reuse while the process is still active
B. to free large amounts of memory
C. to schedule a new process to run on a CPU
D. to increase the amount of physical memory available to a process
Answer: B

15. Which utility compiles and displays the SCSI CAM I/O device database?
A. ddr_config
B. ddrcc
C. scu
D. ddr_dbase
Answer: A

16. Which directories contain the special device files for LSM volumes?
A. /dev/vol and /dev/rvol
B. /dev/lsm and /dev/rlsm
C. /dev/disk/vol and /dev/rdisk/vol
D. /dev/disk and /dev/rdisk
Answer: A

17. Which command synchronizes plexes after a crash or disk failure?
A. voldiskadm
B. volreconfig
C. volrecover
D. volevac
Answer: C

18. What is the role of paging in memory management?
A. to write the pages modified by a suspended process to swap space
B. to reclaim pages so they can be reused
C. to notify a process of an external event
D. to block signals
Answer: B

19. Which is the order (top down) of the LSM object hierarchy?
A. volume, plex, subdisk, physical disk
B. plex, physical disk, volume, subdisk
C. subdisk, volume, plex, physical disk
D. physical disk, volume, subdisk, plex
Answer: A

20. Which phrase best describes a Tru64 UNIX process?
A. a user at a terminal
B. an instance of a running program
C. a collection of cooperating threads
D. the basic unit of scheduling
Answer: B

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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-043
Title : Oracle Database 10g: Administration II

1. You need to check the EMP_EAST partition in the EMPLOYEES table for physical corruptions. You also need to verify that the rows belong to the correct partition. Which option could you use?
A. LogMiner
B. the DBNEWID utility
C. the DBVERIFY utility
D. the ANALYZE command
E. the RMAN REPORT command
F. the RMAN CROSSCHECK command
G. the RMAN BLOCKRECOVER command
Answer: D

2. You lost a temporary file that belongs to the default temporary tablespace in your database. From the options provided, which approach would you take to solve the problem?
A. flash back the database
B. import the temporary tablespace from the last export
C. restore all the data files and temporary files from the last full database backup and perform a recovery
D. not perform a recovery, but create a new temporary tablespace, make it the default temporary tablespace and then drop the old tablespace
Answer: D

3. You enabled Automatic Shared Memory Management. The initialization parameters are set as shown below:
SGA_TARGET = 10GB
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 14GB
STREAMS_POOL_SIZE = 1GB
SHARED_POOL_SIZE = 3GB
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. A maximum of 3 GB can be allocated to shared pool.
B. The value for SGA_TARGET can be increased up to a maximum of 14 GB.
C. A total of 14 GB memory will be allocated to the automatically tuned memory components.
D. Increasing the value for SGA_TARGET will automatically increase the memory allocated for STREAMS_POOL_SIZE.
E. Increasing the value for SGA_TARGET to 12 GB will automatically increase the memory allocated to autotuned parameters.
F. Reducing the value for SGA_TARGET to 9 GB will automatically decrease the memory allocated to shared pool from 3 GB to 2 GB.
Answer: BE

4. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN):
RMAN> RESTORE CONTROLFILE;
Which operation must you perform before this command is executed?
A. back up the control file to trace
B. bring database to the MOUNT state
C. open a connection to the RMAN recovery catalog, which contains the RMAN metadata for the target database
D. set the database ID (DBID), but only if the DB_NAME parameter associated with the target database is unique in the recovery catalog
Answer: C

5. View the Exhibit.
You have more than one table in the recycle bin having the same original name, DEPT2. You do not have any table with the name DEPT2 in your schema. You executed the following command:
PURGE TABLE dept2;
Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. All the tables having the same original name as DEPT2 will be purged from the recycle bin.
B. The table with dropscn = 1928151 (oldest dropscn) will be purged from the recycle bin.
C. The table with dropscn = 1937123 (most recent dropscn) will be purged from the recycle bin.
D. None of the tables will be purged because there are multiple entries with the same original name in the recycle bin.
Answer: B

6. Manually, you set the consumer group of all of the newly created users to MYDB_GRP. You want the users to be able to change their consumer groups as per the application requirement.
What was the first step that was needed in the process to achieve this objective?
A. The user must have been granted the DBA role.
B. The user must have been granted the switch privilege as a part of a role.
C. The user must have been granted the Resource Manager administrator privilege.
D. The user must have been granted the switch privilege by using the DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER_PRIVS package.
Answer: D

7. You are working in an online transaction processing (OLTP) environment. You realize that the salary for an employee, John, has been accidentally modified in the EMPLOYEES table. Two days ago, the data was in the correct state. Flashback logs generated during last two days are available in the flash recovery area.
Which option would you choose to bring the data to the correct state while ensuring that no other data in the same table is affected?
A. perform point-in-time recovery
B. perform a Flashback Table operation to restore the table to the state it was in two days ago
C. perform a Flashback Database operation to restore the database to the state it was in two days ago
D. perform Flashback Versions Query and Flashback Transaction Query to determine all the necessary undo SQL statements, and then use them for recovery
Answer: D

8. for which two SQL statements can you use the Flashback Table feature to revert a table to its previous state? (Choose two.)
A. UPDATE TABLE
B. CREATE CLUSTER
C. TRUNCATE TABLE
D. ALTER TABLE MOVE
E. INSERT INTO…VALUES
F. ALTER TABLE…DROP COLUMN
G. ALTER TABLE…DROP PARTITION
Answer: AE

9. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform a backup of the DETTBS tablespace:
RMAN> BACKUP TABLESPACE DETTBS;
Under which conditions would this command execute successfully? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The database is in NOMOUNT state.
B. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
C. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
D. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
E. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
Answer: BCE

10. You have set the value of the NLS_TIMESTAMP_TZ_FORMAT parameter in the parameter file to YYYY-MM-DD. The default format of which two data types would be affected by this setting? (Choose two.)
A. DATE
B. TIMESTAMP
C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE
Answer: BE

11. View the Exhibit and examine the Flashback SCNs.
A user has inserted wrong department data in the DEPT3 table in the USERS tablespace. You use the Flashback Table functionality to rectify the erroneous inserts. While performing the recovery, you chose 2004343 as the Flashback SCN.
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Only the row with DEPARTMENT_ID 290 would be flashed back.
B. The rows with DEPARTMENT_ID 290 and 300 would be flashed back.
C. The rows with DEPARTMENT_ID 290 and 280 would be flashed back.
D. You would have taken the USERS tablespace offline before starting the Flashback Table operation.
E. You would have enabled row movement for the DEPT3 table before starting the Flashback Table operation.
Answer: BE

12. Immediately after adding a new disk to or removing an existing disk from an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance, you find that the performance of the database decreases initially, until the addition or removal process is completed. Performance then gradually returns to normal levels.
Which two activities could you perform to maintain a consistent performance of the database while adding or removing disks? (Choose two.)
A. increase the number of checkpoint processes
B. define the POWER option while adding or removing the disks
C. increase the number of DBWR processes by setting up a higher value for DB_WRITER_PROCESSES
D. increase the number of slave database writer processes by setting up a higher value for DBWR_IO_SLAVES
E. increase the number of ASM Rebalance processes by setting up a higher value for ASM_POWER_LIMIT during the disk addition or removal process
Answer: BE

13. On Monday, you dropped the DEPT table from your schema and then you re-created the DEPT table in your schema. On Wednesday, you have a requirement to restore the DEPT table from the recycle bin.
Which statement is correct?
A. You can restore the DEPT table by using the Oracle Flashback Drop feature, provided you use the RENAME TO clause.
B. You can restore the DEPT table by using the Oracle Flashback Drop feature and a system-generated name will be assigned to the restored table.
C. You cannot restore the DEPT table by using the Oracle Flashback Drop feature because a table with the name DEPT already exists in your schema.
D. You cannot restore the DEPT table by using the Oracle Flashback Drop feature because the contents of the recycle bin are purged every 12 hours by default.
Answer: A

14. You executed the following FLASHBACK TABLE command:
FLASHBACK TABLE emp TO TIMESTAMP (’11:45′,’hh12:mi’);
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The FLASHBACK TABLE statement will not be written to the alert log file.
B. The changes made to the EMP table since the specified time will be undone.
C. The EMP table that was dropped by mistake from the database will be restored.
D. The FLASHBACK TABLE statement will be executed within a single transaction.
E. The FLASHBACK TABLE statement will not maintain the existing indexes on the EMP table.
F. The list of transactions that have modified the EMP table since the specified time will be displayed.
Answer: BD

15. These are the details about V$FLASHBACK_DATABASE_STAT:
SQL> DESC V$FLASHBACK_DATABASE_STAT
name Null? Type
————- ——– ————–
BEGIN_TIME DATE
END_TIME DATE
FLASHBACK_DATA NUMBER
DB_DATA NUMBER
REDO_DATA NUMBER
ESTIMATED_FLASHBACK_SIZE NUMBER
Which two statements regarding the V$FLASHBACK_DATABASE_STAT view are true? (Choose two.)
A. BEGIN_TIME is the time at which Flashback logging is enabled.
B. END_TIME is the time at which the query is executed on the view.
C. REDO_DATA is the number of bytes of redo data written during the interval.
D. This view contains information about flashback data pertaining to the last 24 hours.
E. FLASHBACK_DATA is the amount of flashback data generated since the database was opened.
Answer: CD

16. You are using Oracle Database 10g. You performed an incomplete recovery of your database and opened the database with the RESETLOGS option.
What is the effect of opening the database with the RESETLOGS option? (Choose two.)
A. This operation resets the SCN for the database.
B. This operation creates a new incarnation of the database.
C. This operation moves all the redo log files to a different location.
D. This operation deletes the old redo log files and creates new redo log files.
E. This operation updates all current datafiles and online redo logs and all subsequent archived redo logs with a new RESETLOGS SCN and time stamp.
Answer: BE

17. You execute the following command to enable a session in resumable mode:
SQL> ALTER SESSION ENABLE RESUMABLE TIMEOUT 60;
What is the impact of a timeout on the statements being suspended?
A. The statements remain suspended for at least 60 seconds.
B. The statements are suspended for 60 seconds and then they are executed.
C. The suspended statements error out if the problem is not rectified within 60 seconds.
D. The statements are automatically suspended 60 seconds after an error is received, and then attempt to execute normally again.
Answer: C

18. You are working in an online transaction processing (OLTP) environment. You used the FLASHBACK TABLE command to flash back the CUSTOMERS table. Before executing the FLASHBACK TABLE command, the System Change Number (SCN) was 663571. After flashing back the CUSTOMERS table, you realize that the table is not in the correct state and the resultant changes are not what you had desired. So, you need to reverse the effects of the FLASHBACK TABLE command while ensuring that:
a) No other user data in the database is affected.
b) The operation takes the minimum possible time.
Which option would you choose?
A. use the ROLLBACK command with SCN 663571
B. perform Flashback Transaction Query with SCN 663571
C. execute the FLASHBACK DATABASE statement to retrieve the CUSTOMERS table as it was at SCN 663571
D. execute another FLASHBACK TABLE statement to retrieve the CUSTOMERS table as it was at SCN 663571
Answer: D

19. Why would you use the following FLASHBACK TABLE command?
FLASHBACK TABLE emp TO TIMESTAMP (’11:45′,’hh12:mi’);
A. to undo the changes made to the EMP table since the specified time
B. to restore the EMP table that was wrongly dropped from the database
C. to view the transactions that have modified the EMP table since the specified time
D. to view the changes made to the EMP table for one or more rows since the specified time
E. to recover the EMP table to a point in time in the past by restoring the most recent backup
Answer: A

20. Which two statements are correct regarding the Oracle Flashback Drop feature? (Choose two.)
A. Recycle bin exists for the tables only in non-SYSTEM, locally managed tablespaces.
B. You can flash back a dropped table provided row movement has been enabled on the table.
C. If you drop an index before dropping its associated table, then the recovery of the index is not supported when you flash back the dropped table.
D. When you execute the DROP TABLESPACE ?INCLUDING CONTENTS command, the objects in the tablespace are placed in the recycle bin.
E. When a dropped table is moved to the recycle bin, only the table is renamed to a system-generated name; its associated objects and constraints are not renamed.
F. If you drop a table that is protected by the recycle bin, then associated bitmap-joined indexes and materialized view logs are also stored in the recycle bin.
Answer: AC

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Exam : Juniper JN0-540
Title : Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate.idp(jncia-idp)

1. What are two drawbacks of an IDS system blocking an IP address? (Choose two.)
A.works only on TCP traffic
B.might not block the attacker until the attack has already taken place
C.need to know the sequence number of the attacker’s IP Header to successfully block the IP address
D.might lead to denial-of-service situation where attacker can intentionally block valid users from accessing a network
Answer: BD

2. Which method of detection does IDP Sensor use to detect a network scan or portscan?
A.DOS Detection
B.Traffic Anomaly
C.Protocol Anomaly
D.Backdoor Detection
Answer: B

3. Which three statements are true about custom reports? (Choose three.)
A.Log filters can be applied to custom reports.
B.You can export custom reports to pdf format.
C.All custom reports are stored on per user basis.
D.Creating reports using indexed columns is significantly faster.
Answer: ACD

4. Which three columns can be seen in the Application view of Profiler? (Choose three.)
A.Protocol
B.Context and Context Value
C.Source and Destination IPs
D.Date First Seen and Last Seen
Answer: BCD

5. Which two statements about disk management on the IDP Sensor are true? (Choose two.)
A.IDP Management Server can be configured to send disk space alerts.
B.If the IDP Sensor disk is full, the IDP Sensor will not store any additional logs or packet captures.
C.If the IDP Sensor disk is full IDP Sensor starts oldest log entries first, and packet captures second.
D.If the IDP Management Server disk is full, the oldest packet captures are purged first, and the log messages are purged second.
Answer: AD

6. What are the limitations of using TCP Reset to block connections in an IDS? (Choose three.)
A.only works on TCP traffic
B.does not reset the connection until the attack has already taken place
C.must know the correct packet size to successfully reset a connection
D.resets all connections from a certain source-IP, which could lead to denial-of-service
Answer: ABD

7. Which three functions can the IDP Sensor perform? (Choose three.)
A.performs attack detection and prevention
B.collects and presents logs to the IDP User Interface
C.forwards logs and status messages to the IDP Management Server
D.store logs locally when the IDP Management Server is unreachable
Answer: ACD

8. What is a buffer overflow attack?
A.a misconfigured application that has a known security hole
B.an attack that overflows a server with many connections until it crashes
C.an attack that takes advantage of a backdoor within a vulnerable application
D.an attack which injects just the right amount of data into a vulnerable application, causing the application to execute the malicious code that was injected
Answer: D

9. What is the function of the IDP User Interface?
A.It stores Security Policies and Attack Objects
B.It supplements the Command-Line Interface on the Sensor, but is not required.
C.It downloads logs from various Sensors and displays them to the administrator.
D.It provides an interface for the administrator to view Logs/Reports and define Security Policies.
Answer: D

10. Which IDP Sensor is recommended to support onboard Management Server?
A.IDP-10
B.IDP-100
C.IDP-500
D.IDP-1000
Answer: B

11. What are two limitations of traditional IDS systems? (Choose two.)
A.do not detect internal attacks
B.do not use signatures for known attacks
C.do not operate inline so they cannot effectively block all attacks
D.frequently have false positives due to less accurate packet signatures
Answer: CD

12. Which layers of the OSI Model does IDP look into when inspecting a packet?
A.Layers 2-7
B.Layers 3-7
C.Layer 7 only
D.Layers 2-4 only
Answer: A

13. What best describes Reconnaissance attacks?
A.transmission of TCP SYN requests from a spoofed IP address
B.transmission of ping packets of certain size to crash a remote host
C.unauthorized discovery and mapping of systems, services, or vulnerabilities
D.disabling or corrupting networks, systems, or services with the intent to deny the service to intended users
Answer: C

14. What is a Close Server action?
A.issues a TCP Reset to the server only
B.drops all packets from the attacker’s IP
C.drops any packet matching this src/dst/protocol
D.drops only the specific packet matching the attack pattern
Answer: A

15. Which three best describe denial-of-service attacks? (Choose three.)
A.transmission of ping packets of a certain size to crash a remote host
B.the unauthorized discovery and mapping of systems, services, or vulnerabilities
C.transmission of TCP SYN requests from a spoofed IP address to exhaust the resources of a victim
D.disabling or corrupting networks, systems, or services with the intent to deny the service to intended users
Answer: ACD

16. Which statements are true about the IDP Management Server? (Choose two.)
A.One IDP Management Server can manage multiple IDP Sensors.
B.Each IDP Sensor must have its own Management Server component.
C.The IDP Management Server process can be run on a IDP Sensor for evaluation purposes.
D.Supported operating systems for IDP Management Server are Windows 2000, BSD UNIX, and Linux.
Answer: AC

17. Which method of detection does IDP Sensor use to detect attacks against a fake system on the network?
A.Network Honeypot
B.Spoofing Detection
C.Stateful Signatures
D.Backdoor Detection
Answer: A

18. Which two statements are true about Trojans? (Choose two.)
A.They are executables that infect only executable programs.
B.They are programs often used to gather information about a host.
C.They can secretly permit access to an infected computer from an outside host.
D.They are programs that target only webservers by overwhelming them with traffic.
Answer: BC

19. Which two attack detection methods are unique to Juniper NetScreenIDP? (Choose two.)
A.Protocol Anomaly
B.Packet Signatures
C.Statefull Signatures
D.Backdoor Detection
Answer: CD

20. What are three functions of the IDP Management Server? (Choose three.)
A.blocks attacks
B.stores Security Policies and Attack Objects
C.consolidates logs from the various IDP Sensors in a network
D.receives and manages connections from IDP User Interfaces
Answer: BCD

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Exam : BEA 0B0-109
Title : WebLogic Server 9

1. When a Web service throws an exception, how does a client that makes use of a JAX-RPC stub receive it?
A.As a RemoteException
B.As a SOAPFaultException
C.As a NullPointerException
D.As a WebServiceException
Answer: A

2. What is the JNDI name of the default queue used for configuring web service reliable messaging in WebLogic server?
A.weblogic.wsee.DefaultQueue
B.weblogic.DefaultQueue
C.weblogic.wsee
D.wsee.DefaultQueue
Answer: A

3. A reliable WebLogic web service provides which of the following delivery assurances?
A.AtLeastOnce
B.ExactlyOnce
C.MostlyOnce
D.AtMostOnce
Answer: AB

4. Which of these are valid descriptive sub-elements of a SOAP fault?
A.faultInteger
B.faultcode
C.faultstring
D.faultactor
Answer: BCD

5. Entity bean activation involves
A.EJB Container providing a primary key identity to a pooled EJB
B.EJB Container moves an EJB from secondary storage to main memory
C.EJB Container creates a new EJB instance and adds to the active pool
D.None of the above
Answer: A

6. What is the command to create a new web application archive (.war) file?
A.jar -Mvf someArchive.war *
B.jar -tvf someArchive.war *
C.jar -vf someArchive.war *
D.jar -cvf someArchive.war *
Answer: D

7. Which of these <trans-attribute> tags forces the EJB to be executed within a transaction started either by the client or container?
A.Supports
B.Required
C.RequiresNew
D.Mandatory
Answer: B

8. Which of these session parameters would impact the performance of a Web Application?
i. InvalidationIntervalSecs
ii. TimeoutSecs
iii. CacheSize
A.i
B.ii, iii
C.i, ii, iii
D.i, ii
Answer: C

9. What does a web service generate if an error occurs during the processing of a request?
A.A Java Exception
B.java.io.Exception
C.A SOAP Fault
D.None of the above
Answer: C

10. Applications deployed with J2EE technologies are:
i. Deployable in any compliant application server
ii. Adherent to specification guidelines
iii. Written in Java
A.ii, iii
B.i, ii, iii
C.iii, i
D.i, ii
Answer: B

11. Which of the following statements are true about JMX?
A.It defines an infrastructure to manage a driver from native programs
B.It decouples the managed device from the management tools
C.MBeans are the building blocks of JMX
D.All of the above
Answer: BC

12. Which of these is the least performing EJB concurrency strategies?
A.Database
B.Exclusive
C.ReadOnly
D.Optimistic
Answer: B

13. Which of these strategies can improve performance of a Container Managed Entity EJB?
A.Avoiding Compound Keys
B.Field Groups
C.Choosing a proper concurrency strategy
D.All of the above
Answer: D

14. A container or application server can optimize performance by pooling EJBs that are considered to be identical. Which or these parameters can be used to control the size of this EJB pool?
A.<max-beans-in-free-pool>
B.<max-beans-in-pool>
C.<beans-in-free-pool>
D.<max-beans-in-initial-pool>
Answer: A

15. Consider the following code snippet.
Context ctx = new InitialContext(); DataSource ds = (DataSource)ctx.lookup("SomeDatasource");
Which of these statements gets a JDBC connection successfully?
A.Connection con = ds.createConnection();
B.Connection con = ds.getConnection();
C.Connection con = ds.retrieveConnection();
D.Connection con = ctx.getConnection();
Answer: B

16. If cookies are disabled on the client browser, which of these methods on the HttpServletResponse object can help in rewriting the URL with a session ID?
A.session.encodeURL()
B.session.writeURL()
C.session.encodeSessionIDinURL()
D.session.encodeSessionID()
Answer: A

17. A system exception is one that indicates that the business method of an EJB was prevented from successfully executing because of some system-level error. Which of these statements is true about a system exception?
A.It is a subclass of RemoteException or RuntimeException
B.It is propagated to clients as a RemoteException
C.It is caught and logged by the container
D.All of the above
Answer: D

18. Which of these statements is not true about Design Patterns?
A.They are a non-repeatable process or design addressing a specific issue or a problem in the development of a system.
B.They are predictable in their function and are consistent in their pros and cons.
C.They are concepts that allow for a common method to quickly and effectively communicate complex ideology to others.
D.They allow for the accelerated education of the concept for those new to it.
Answer: A

19. When a reliable web service method is invoked asynchronously, which of these scenarios will happen?
A.The results will be sent back in the same reliable sequence as the method invocation
B.The results will be sent back in another reliable sequence
C.The results will not be sent in a reliable sequence
D.None of the above
Answer: B

20. Transaction configuration can have a big impact on the performance of EJBs. Which of these statements is true?
i. Too many fine-grain transactions generate excessive traffic to transaction and resource managers ii. Too many coarse-grain transactions may block other clients accessing the same resources
A.i
B.ii
C.i, ii
D.None of the above
Answer: C

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Exam : BEA 0B0-410
Title : BEA Certified Support Associate: WebLogic Server 9/10

1. Users are reporting that they cannot access an application on the server using virtual host names. To debug this issue; the traffic received by each virtual host can be viewed by
A. Configuring and enabling Domain Log Filters
B. Configuring audit logs for logging HTTP requests
C. Enabling HTTP access log for each virtual host
D. Configuring and assigning network channels for each user
Answer: C

2. Scenario: Consider a production server deployment wherein the development team has no access to the production servers. The Administrative team owns the responsibility of deployments, upgrades and supporting the applications hosted on these servers. The decision was for a development and administrative team to use off-line and online WLST scripts to deploy and support the application.
A. During debugging, if there is a need for the development team to review and recreate a similar server configuration, which one of the following approaches would you adopt
B. Create a WLST off-line script using duplicateDomain and send it to the development team to recreate the server configuration
C. Send all servers configuration files and have them recreate the server configuration using WLST parse scripts
D. Create a WebLogic Server domain template using WLST and send it to the development team to recreate the configuration
E. Use the WebLogic admin console to save the domain configuration and send it to the development team
Answer: C

3. What are the three different types of watches provided by the WebLogic 9.x Diagnostic Framework?
A. MBean, Harvester, Log
B. Harvester, Log, Instrumentation
C. Alarm, Notification, Log
D. Severity, Alarm, Harvester
Answer: B

4. Which of the following version of Node Manager runs with a larger footprint when compared with the others?
A. Java Version with SSL
B. Java Version without SSL (plain)
C. RSH Version
D. SSH Version
Answer: A

5. Which of the following is the correct process to initiate a configuration change using the Administration Console?
A. Obtain a lock on the current configuration, use JMX APIs to make changes to the configuration, and then click the Save button
B. Update the edit.lok file; edit the config.xml file or the underlying subsystem xml files in the domain and restart the server
C. Obtain a lock on the current configuration, make changes, and then click the Save button
D. Update the edit.lok file, use WLST to make changes, and then restart the server
Answer: C

6. Which two of the following statements are true about developing a Java web service? (Choose two)
A. Must have a private constructor
B. Must include at a minimum, a @WebService JWS annotation
C. May reference a service endpoint interface
D. All of the above
Answer: BC

7. What tool would be the best choice for deploying applications interactively when you do not know the exact names of target servers?
A. weblogic.Deployer
B. Administration Console
C. WLST
D. Using wldeploy Ant task
Answer: B

8. If there is problem with one of the transactions started by an EJB application, which one of the following would be a starting point for troubleshooting this scenario?
A. Use a text editor to view the transaction log file for information about the failed transaction.
B. Use WebLogic Server log file for the respective server to gain more information about the failed transaction.
C. Use Smart Update GUI to update the failed transaction and commit it.
D. Use the HTTP log file for the respective sever to gain more information about the failed transaction.
Answer: B

9. WLST life cycle commands are used to manage the life cycle of a server instance and its services. If the requirement is to use the Migrate command, which one of the following is INCORRECT?
A. The Migrate command can only be used to migrate a JMS server to another server within a cluster
B. For JTA migration, the source server has to be down for the Migrate command to succeed
C. For JMS Service, migration to another server can happen only on a running server
D. The migration type server option can be used to migrate all services for a particular server
Answer: C

10. When using WLDF to perform diagnostics tasks with WebLogic Server 9.x, which one of the following is true?
A. WLDF configuration can only be done on the server-level
B. WLDF configuration can only be done on the application-level
C. WLDF configuration can be done both on the server-level and on the application-level
D. WLDF configuration can only be done on the domain-level
Answer: C

11. When configuration changes are being made to a domain by an administrative user after acquiring a lock, which of the following statement is true?
A. The lock expires in 30 minutes by default after which the changes are rolled back
B. The lock can be acquired by another other administrative user in which case the changes currently pending will be rolled back
C. The lock can be acquired by another other user of the administrative category in which case the changes currently not committed will be inherited by the user who acquired the lock
D. The lock cannot be acquired by others which an administrative user is holding the lock.
Answer: C

12. When updating a domain configuration using WLST in order to add additional resources and you have connected to the administration server using the administrative user weblogic. You are unaware that your colleague also has some changes to make and is trying to log in to the WebLogic Server Console as the user weblogic too. By default, what will happen when your colleague attempts to log in?
A. The login request is rejected because weblogic is already logged in
B. The colleague logs in, but must wait for you to release the configuration lock
C. The colleague logs in and discovers that he or she already has the lock, sharing it with you
D. The colleague logs in and is given the option to take the lock from you
Answer: C

13. You are not sure whether the configuration change you have just made in the WebLogic Server Console requires the Managed Servers to be restarted. What should you do?
A. Look for details in the restart-servers.xml in the pending directory
B. View the Restart Checklist portlet in the console
C. It is not possible to tell, so you should restart them anyway
D. Examine the domain restart log for a list of the servers that need restarting
Answer: B

14. You have started the administration server for your domain and start to configure some additional Managed Servers. When using the WebLogic Server Console to add or change domain configuration attributes, such as adding new servers, the new settings are
A. Written immediately to config.xml
B. Saved as a list of changes in a pending file
C. Saved as a pending version of config.xml
D. Saved in the default (file) persistent store
Answer: C

15. What is the order in which the upgrade should be run when upgrading to 9.x?
A. Security providers, node manager, managed server
B. Node manager, security providers, managed server
C. Managed server, security providers, node manager
D. Security providers, managed server, node manager
Answer: A

16. Which of the following is NOT a state for a WebLogic Server instance?
A. RUNNING
B. STANDBY
C. PENDING
D. ADMIN
Answer: C

17. When diagnosing a native out of memory issue with one of the managed servers in a cluster, which of the following recommendations will not be useful in collecting appropriate information?
A. Use ‘-verbosegc’ JVM arugment to collect heap usage information.
B. Record the process virtual memory size periodically using OS tools.
C. Check whether your application uses some JNI code or third party native modules.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D

18. During an upgrade process, which one of the following is NOT converted to 9.x by the upgrade wizard?
A. User scripts
B. User file store persisted data
C. User tlog
D. User in-flight transactions
Answer: A

19. Poison message in JMS occurs when:
A. a JMS Message was sent to wrong queue with AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE option set
B. a standalone receiver with client acknowledgment, does NOT call session.acknowledgement()
C. a javax.jms.JMSSecurityException was thrown while sending a message to a queue/topic
D. a MDB with option set to Auto-acknowledge receives a message
Answer: B

20. Smart Update is used for
A. updating an existing version of application with a new version in production
B. installing maintenance patches and service packs for WebLogic Server
C. updating the DTD based deployment descriptor(s) of a J2EE Application or Module to schema based deployment descriptor(s)
D. updating the JDBC driver used by DataSources in a JDBC System Module automatically
Answer: B

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Exam : Juniper JN0-561
Title : Juniper Networks Certified Internet Assoc(JNCIA-SSL) Exam

1. Which three statements about a Server Certificate are true? (Choose three.)
A.It is required for HTTP to function.
B.It allows visitors to the server to authenticate its identity.
C.It is a digital document that vouches for the identity of the server.
D.It contains information about the server itself and the organization that owns the server.
E.It is an electronic "drivers license" that establishes client credentials when doing business or other transactions on the Web.
Answer: BCD

2. What is the function of SSL?
A.encrypts data on the client’s hard drive
B.allows anonymous file transfer over the Internet
C.protects clients from viruses and worms in email
D.negotiates encryption keys and authenticates the server
Answer: D

3. Which three statements about SSL VPNs are true? (Choose three.)
A.SSL VPNs are simple to deploy.
B.SSL VPNs provide a dedicated, always-on connection.
C.SSL VPNs provide high performance for individual connections.
D.SSL VPNs use well-known technologies for secure individual connections.
Answer: ACD

4. Which model does not support clustering?
A.SA700
B.SA2000
C.SA4000
D.SA6000
Answer: A

5. What is a disadvantage of using Client Server Application Layer Access?
A.has limited auditing
B.has only TCP/IP level authorization
C.has operating system and/or JVM compatibility issues
D.has limited resource access to enterprise Web applications and resources
Answer: C

6. Which Role-Based Session option would an administrator configure to allow a user to connect from different source IP addresses within the same user session?
A.roaming session
B.persistent session
C.persistent password caching
D.browser request follow-through
Answer: A

7. When using W-SAM, which statement is true about client privileges? (Choose two.)
A.The user needs Administrator privileges to download the ActiveX control.
B.The user needs Administrator privileges to download W-SAM via the Java delivery mechanism.
C.The user needs Administrator privileges in order for the IVE to interface with the client LSP and manipulate traffic.
D.The user needs Administrator privileges in order for the IVE to automatically install Secure Application Manager on the client.
Answer: AD

8. Which filter properly searches an AD/NT server directory via LDAP for the user login name and compares it to the user’s IVE login name?
A.cn=<USERNAME>
B.cn=<samaccountname>
C.samaccountname=<NAME>
D.samaccountname=<USERNAME>
Answer: D

9. Where is the IVE typically deployed in the network?
A.behind the Internet firewall
B.internally with all clients directly cabled to the IVE
C.both interfaces on the outside of the Internet firewall in Transparent Mode
D.parallel to the Internet firewall with one interface on the outside and one on the inside
Answer: A

10. Which three statements about IPSec VPNs are true? (Choose three.)
A.IPSec VPNs are simple to deploy.
B.IPSec VPNs are standards-based.
C.IPSec VPNs provide a dedicated, always-on connection.
D.IPSec encryption, data integrity, and authentication methods are well known.
Answer: BCD

11. Which statement is true about the IVE deployment option Two arm, DMZ?
A.The external interface is plugged into the DMZ and the internal interface is plugged into the internal LAN.
B.The internal interface is plugged into the internal LAN, behind a firewall with only SSL allowed to the IVE.
C.The external interface is plugged into an external DMZ and the internal interface is plugged into an internal DMZ.
D.The external interface is plugged into the external network without a firewall and the internal interface is plugged into the internal LAN.
Answer: A

12. What are two benefits of using SSL? (Choose two.)
A.SSL is a session layer protocol so it has no NAT or firewall transversal issues.
B.Remote Access with SSL only requires a web browser on the client for basic access.
C.SSL is a network layer protocol so it provides easy access to large numbers of users with minimal configuration.
D.While SSL VPNs are more difficult to set up than IPSec VPNs, they are much faster and offer higher encryption rates than that of IPSec VPNs. r on the client.
Answer: AB

13. Which two statements about TLS are true? (Choose two.)
A.TLS is a descendent of SSL 3.0.
B.It is not supported on the OpenSSL engine.
C.It is the only transport protocol used by the IVE.
D.It supports legacy SSL while codifying additional behaviors.
Answer: AD

14. What is a disadvantage of using Core Access?
A.has limited auditing
B.has no kiosk access
C.has limited resource access
D.requires administrator privileges on user machines to function
Answer: C

15. Which model has externally accessible, hot swappable hard drives?
A.SA700
B.SA2000
C.SA4000
D.SA6000
Answer: D

16. What are two benefits of using SSL? (Choose two.)
A.The SSL client is included in all Web browsers.
B.SSL usually requires no client side configuration.
C.The SSL client is smaller than most IPSec clients, with half the options to configure than that of an IPSec client.
D.SSL outperforms IPSec on every level because it operates at the network layer rather than the application layer.
Answer: AB

17. You have just created a resource policy for file access.
What is the default action?
A.allow access
B.deny access
C.no default setting
D.refer to detailed rule
Answer: A

18. What are two functions performed by the Content Intermediation Engine? (Choose two.)
A.Parser: This function processes data streams into chunks that can be manipulated by the transformers.
B.Authorization: This function verifies the identity of users trying to access the IVE then forwards requests to the inside server using those credentials.
C.Authentication: This function verifies the identity of users trying to access the IVE and then intermediates requests to the inside server using those credentials.
D.Transformer: This function modifies the "chunked" data stream before it passes the data to the request handlers. Transformers modify internal URLs, HTML markup and scripts to refer to "virtual" URLs/markup/scripts sourced from the IVE appliance.
Answer: AD

19. Which two types of Digital Certificates are used by the IVE? (Choose two.)
A.Client Certificates
B.LDAP Certificates
C.Server Certificates
D.RADIUS Certificates
Answer: AC

20. You need to create a very detailed log search, but you do not have Central Manager installed.
How would you accomplish this?
A.export the log and use third-party utility to search the file
B.use dynamic logs and keep clicking on fields until you get as detailed as you need
C.use the Filter tab and create your query using the query field, then reference the Filter Variables Dictionary
D.use the edit query feature on the log screen and use the "?" to get access to the Filter Variables Dictionary
Answer: A

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Exam : Lotus 190-710
Title : IBM Lotus Notes Domino 7 App.Development Foundation Skills

1. Herb has some data to display in a form, and he would like to have it appear in a formatted grid. What option would he use to format this data layout?
A. Create > Grid
B. Create > Table
C. Create > Data Layout
D. Create > Formatted Display
Answer: B

2. To capture the date a document is created, Maria uses @Today in a formula. However, when she edits a document and saves it again, the date changes from the creation date to the current date. Which of the following causes the date to change?
A. The document was edited by another user.
B. The formula was placed in a Computed field.
C. She does not have the appropriate ACL access.
D. The formula was placed in a Computed when Composed field.
Answer: B

3. AJ wants to create a new application on his laptop that does not have any design elements in it. Which of the following should he do to begin this process?
A. Select File > Database > New and give it a filename of "blank.nsf".
B. Select File > Database > New and choose local as the server, then choose the blank template.
C. Select File > Database > New, choose local as the server, then choose the default.ntf template.
D. Select File > Database > New, give it a filename of "blank.nsf", and chose the blank template.
Answer: B

4. Janean has been asked to add the company logo to each form in the Video Rental database. How can she do this and minimize potential future maintenance of the logo?
A. Paste the logo into each form.
B. Add a computed link to the logo in each form.
C. Add the logo as an image hotspot in each form.
D. Add the logo from the Shared Resources – Images area.
Answer: D

5. Erin has created a new view in her mail file, and she doesn’t want the view removed when the design is refreshed from the main design template. What setting will keep her view from being deleted?
A. "Prohibit design refresh or replace to modify" in the View Properties dialog box
B. "Prohibit design refresh or replace to modify" in the Database Properties dialog box
C. "Prohibit design refresh or replace to modify" in the Design Document Properties dialog box
D. "Prohibit design refresh or replace to modify" in the Template Design Properties dialog box
Answer: C

6. Orlando wrote an agent to generate a weekly email that summarizes all the activity in the Video Rental application. The database resides on the PROD01 server with a replica on the BACKUP01 server. He is receiving two copies of the email every week. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The agent is set to run on "Any Server".
B. The "Restart On Failure" setting has been selected.
C. The agent is set to run on both "PROD01" and "BACKUP01".
D. The agent is set to run on "Local" as well as the PROD01 server.
Answer: A

7. Derek has created a view in the products.nsf database. Derek wants the Markup column in the view to display the selling price of the item minus the cost. He wants this value to display in currency. Which of the following should Derek do?
A. Use the @function @Currency in the column formula in the view.
B. Select currency on the Numbers tab in the View Properties box.
C. Select currency on the Numbers tab in the Column Properties box.
D. Select currency on the Numbers tab in the Field Properties box of the cost field.
Answer: C

8. Christopher is making a new database using the "NewVideo" Design Template that he plans to customize. He wants to make sure that his new application will not get future modifications to the "NewVideo" Design Template. Which of the following should Christopher do to accomplish this?
A. Create a blank database and refresh the design of the new database using the "NewVideo" Design Template.
B. Create the new database from the "NewVideo" Design Template and deselect "Inherit future design changes" in the New Database dialog box.
C. Create the new database from the "NewVideo" Design Template and then open the database Design properties and select "Database is a master template."
D. Create the new database from the "NewVideo" Design Template and then open the database Design properties and select "Database file is a master template."
Answer: B

9. Jayne has asked her Domino server administrator to enable document locking on the server. Which of the following must she do to enable it for her application?
A. Enable the "Allow document locking" database property.
B. Create a view column for the locked document view icon.
C. Add a profile document to the database to manage the locked documents.
D. Enable document locking at the view level for each view in the database.
Answer: A

10. Nadia would like to position overlapping blocks of content on a form in the Video application. She wants the flexibility to control the placement, size, and content of the information. Which of the following should Nadia use when creating her form?
A. Layers
B. Subforms
C. Framesets
D. Style sheets
Answer: A

11. Sal wants to allow Jackie to create and modify documents in his Video application, but he doesn’t want Jackie to make a local replica or copy of the database. Which of the following should Sal do to accomplish this?
A. There is no way for Sal to do this.
B. Give Jackie Author access on the database ACL.
C. Give Jackie Editor access and deselect "Replicate or copy documents" in the database ACL.
D. Give Jackie Editor access on the database ACL and assign a role that prevents him from replicating or copying documents.
Answer: C

12. Hans is designing the Reviews application. The application will include two forms: Review and Response. In the view, the Response documents do not appear under the Review documents from which they were created. Which of the following could cause this to happen?
A. Inheritance in the Review form was disabled.
B. Shared field values were enabled on both forms.
C. Shared field values and field definitions were enabled.
D. Show Response documents in a hierarchy was not enabled.
Answer: D

13. Juan has a form field that is designed to store Notes document links. He wants to make sure that no other types of information is stored in that field. How can Juan restrict information in that field?
A. Create a Rich Text field with an object type of "Links".
B. Create a Rich Text field with an Input Validation formula.
C. Create a Rich Text Lite field with an object type of "Links".
D. Create a Rich Text Lite field with an Input Validation formula.
Answer: C

14. Which of the following accurately describes field names?
A. They must be unique in a database.
B. They must include text and a number.
C. They can only be used once in a view.
D. They can only be used once on each form.
Answer: D

15. Cam has created a new design for her Video application. Cam would like to post the design to the server and make it available so other databases can automatically inherit the design changes when the DESIGN server tasks runs. Which of the following should Cam do to make the new design available on the development server?
A. Copy the database to the development server, and name it "newvideo.ntf".
B. Copy the database to the development server, and name it "newvideo.nsf".
C. Copy the database to the server, name it "newvideo.ntf", select "Inherit design from master template", and give it a template name in the database Design properties.
D. Copy the database to the development server, name it "newvideo.ntf", select "Database file is a master template", and give it a template name in the database Design properties.
Answer: D

16. Colby has a default level access of Author in the Suggestion database. She created a new suggestion, but was unable to edit the document later. Why would this problem occur?
A. The document does not have a Readers type field.
B. The document form does not have an Authors type field.
C. She needs the "Edit document" option added to her access.
D. She needs at least editor access to edit her documents in the database.
Answer: B

17. Mary has a Notes application that is used by employees in Europe and Japan. Each group of employees has a server located in its own geographical location. Mary needs to have versions of her application in both locations for efficient access, and the application data and design must stay synchronized in both locations. How can Mary accomplish this?
A. Create a copy of the database in both locations with the menu option File>Database> New Copy.
B. Create a replica of the database in both locations with the menu option File>Replication>New Replica.
C. Create a mirror copy of the database in both locations with the menu option File>Database>Mirror Database.
D. Create a synchronized copy of the database in both locations with the menu option
File>Synchronization>New Copy.
Answer: B

18. Kristin wants to create an action in the Titles view. The code in the action is:
Field Type:= "Action";
Field Director:= "Richard Clarke";
""
When the user clicks the action, which of the following will be affected?
A. The Video form
B. All selected documents
C. All documents in the database
D. Documents defined by the selection formula in the view
Answer: B

19. Clarissa has created a view of videos that are currently checked out. She would like to display a stoplight icon in the view for videos that are overdue. What column property does she need to select to accomplish this?
A. Show icons only
B. Use icon as value
C. Show custom icon image
D. Display values as icons
Answer: D

20. Luis needs to add a field to a form that will allow him to enter up to 500 kilobytes of data. What type of field should he use for this requirement?
A. Text
B. Rich Text
C. Extended Text
D. Expanded Text
Answer: B

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